We are all familiar with the verse that says, the Word became Flesh.
I never had a problem in understanding what the above verse states. It is plain and simple which says what it says. But, after having conversation with some good bible believing pastors, I am amazed to find that they believe Mary contributed to that flesh. It was really shocking to me and I felt the need to address this issue using scriptures by showing you 7 important reasons and prove to you that Mary had no contribution of flesh or DNA to Jesus Christ.And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
John 1:14
1. Flesh taken out of dust is cursed
In the sweat of your face you shall eat bread Till you return to the ground, For out of it you were taken; For dust you are, And to dust you shall return
Gen 3:19
If God can save mankind through someone made from dust, then there is no need for Christ. However, God had to send someone who is not made of dust to avoid the curse spoken by God which never returns to Him void. So, God sent His own Son, the Word who was God and was with God became Flesh and this Flesh does not return to dust.
.. nor did His flesh see corruption.
Acts 2:31
Hence, Jesus Christ’s Flesh has no part of Mary’s cursed flesh which becomes dust.
2. Without blemish, without spot
but with the precious blood of Christ, as of a lamb without blemish and without spot
1 Pet 1:19
Is the precious blood of Christ have from DNA from Mary? How blasphemous it is? How can Christ be without blemish and without spot if He had inherited flesh from Mary?
And Mary said: “My soul magnifies the Lord, And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior.
Luke 1:46-47
All including Mary require a savior so that she can be saved. Hence, Mary is not sinless. If Mary had contributed flesh or DNA to Jesus Christ, then His blood is neither precious nor without blemish.
3. Not of this world
And He said to them, “You are from beneath; I am from above. You are of this world; I am not of this world.
John 8:23
Jesus Christ plainly said, He is not of this world. He didn’t even hinted that He has some part of this world. How plain language could this be?
4. Denied being David’s son
While the Pharisees were gathered together, Jesus asked them, saying, “What do you think about the Christ? Whose Son is He?” They said to Him, “The Son of David.” He said to them, “How then does David in the Spirit call Him ‘Lord,’ saying: ‘The LORD said to my Lord, “Sit at My right hand, Till I make Your enemies Your footstool” ’ ? “If David then calls Him ‘Lord,’ how is He his Son?” And no one was able to answer Him a word, nor from that day on did anyone dare question Him anymore.
Matt 22:41-46
Jesus plainly denied Himself being David’s son.
And He said to them, “Why did you seek Me? Did you not know that I must be about My Father’s business?”
Luke 2:49
He is always ‘Son of God’ and never considered Himself to be ‘son of David’.
5. Not a demi-God
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.
John 1:14
Jesus Christ who is fully God did not inherit half of Mary’s DNA or flesh to become a demi-god. Instead, the Word who is fully God, became flesh.
6. Stopped Mary being referred as mother
Then one said to Him, “Look, Your mother and Your brothers are standing outside, seeking to speak with You.” But He answered and said to the one who told Him, “Who is My mother and who are My brothers?” And He stretched out His hand toward His disciples and said, “Here are My mother and My brothers! For whoever does the will of My Father in heaven is My brother and sister and mother.”
Matt 12:47-50
How plain is the above language? If Jesus had flesh or DNA from Mary, why should He stop others calling Mary as His mother?
7. Had flesh even before Mary
When Jesus therefore saw His mother, and the disciple whom He loved standing by, He said to His mother, “Woman, behold your son!”
John 19:26
Further, Jesus never referred Mary as mother anytime but always as woman.
And Jacob was left alone. And a man wrestled with him until the breaking of the day. When the man saw that he did not prevail against Jacob, he touched his hip socket, and Jacob’s hip was put out of joint as he wrestled with him. Then he said, “Let me go, for the day has broken.” But Jacob said, “I will not let you go unless you bless me.” And he said to him, “What is your name?” And he said, “Jacob.” Then he said, “Your name shall no longer be called Jacob, but Israel, for you have striven with God and with men, and have prevailed.”
Gen 32:24-28
Jesus Christ had flesh even before He was born on this world. In fact, He visited Abraham and wrestled with Jacob.
No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him.
John 1:18
It is not God the Father who visited both Abraham and Jacob because no man has seen or can see. Hence, Jesus had flesh even before Mary was born.
Seed of Woman
And I will put enmity Between you and the woman, And between your seed and her Seed; He shall bruise your head, And you shall bruise His heel.”
Gen 3:15
Seed of woman simply means offspring, not necessarily blood related. If you think that Jesus Christ must be blood related to Mary (or) inherit some flesh from Mary for Him to be a seed of woman, then how about the snake’s seed mentioned in the same verse?
You are of your father the devil, and the desires of your father you want to do.
John 8:44
Is the man of lawlessness (or Antichrist) born of a snake or must have some snake flesh?
Conclusion
Mary had no contribution of her flesh or her DNA to Jesus Christ. The Word became Flesh and dwelt among men. The Word didn’t mix with men. Hence, Mary was just a surrogate who carried Jesus Christ in her womb.
You’ve given me something to ponder, doesn’t quite fit into place smoothly, and as far as Yeshua having flesh and appearing to Abraham and Jacob, simply is conjecture, there is ‘no proof” that He appeared to anyone in the flesh before He was born from Mariam. Only in visions Heavenly visions, was His glory seen.
It is certainly possible that Jesus Christ appeared in visions/dreams to both Abraham and Jacob but these two events (God appearing to Abraham and having a meal and Jacob wrestling with God) were not described as dreams or visions in Scripture, despite God speaking to both through dreams and visions (e.g., Abraham’s vision of count the stars in the sky and Jacob’s dream of a ladder to heaven).
Am just glad I landed here…..I live in Uganda East Africa and av just got a dream wen ma child was concieved in a way of surrogacy……bt it was traditional I think……cz I discovered…….and went look for spiritual interpretation…….til I landed here……..from yo teaching…..av learnt that Mary had no part in this…….
I have been believing that Mary was a surrogate mother to Jesus for some years now. The belief that Mary was actually Jesus’s mother makes him a demigod, a non Christian twist from pagan beliefs. Good to have a list of scriptures as a proof that Jesus was brought forth through serrogation.
I agree with the idea that Mary was surrogate just carrying Jesus in her womb.but disagree with Jesus having flesh before Mary.According to John1:14, he became flesh at his miraculous conception in Mary.
Jesus having flesh before being born of Mary is based on several appearances of God in flesh. e.g, Abraham, wrestling with Jacob etc.
Just as ‘John the baptist’ in John 1:21 denied himself to be a prophet and Elijah, while Jesus acknowledges him to be the greatest prophet (Matt 11:9) and Elijah (Matt 11:14), we must always ask what Jesus says about Himself and not what the narrator says about Jesus.
Similarly, while John 1:14 is true (as the narrator John explains), Jesus is not bound by time when He was with the Father. Jesus Himself said in John 8:56-58 that He met Abraham. I do agree that it doesn’t specifically say “in flesh” but the context suggest that Gen 18:1-3 event must be Jesus where God comes to meet Abraham as a man in flesh.
We are created in His own image. Jesus have all the body parts and face as us long before his incarnation on this earth.
This year I finally had revelation from some Bible teachers concerning Jesus’ DNA. I could not get my head around how He could have any of Mary’s DNA and be the sinless Savior. Finally it resonated that what Holy Spirit deposited into Mary’s womb was a completely fertilized egg – Christ incarnate, complete… in human form with need to grow, be born, and save the world. I am satisfied once again that “science” will one day prove the existence of our Mighty God…after all who will, come to Him in faith!
I just had a mind Blowing revelation, as I was reading Hebrews seven. So much so that I had to Google to see if anyone else had discovered this. So, here I am! Hebrews 7 further substantiates your argument. Jesus was made in the Order of Melchizedec. The Bible clearly says that he had no father or mother or beginning or end of days. It cannot be any more plain than this!
Rom 9:8 That is, those who are the children of the flesh, these are not the children of God; but the children of the promise are counted as the seed.
Allow me to quote some more pertinent passages:
“But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law,” (Galatians 4:4).
Note that it says Christ is “made of a woman.” The term “made” here is from the verb ginomai, which means “to become, be made of or formed (from geino, “to form”)”. The Bible clearly teaches that Jesus’ Body was formed from the very substance of Mary’s body.
The denial that Jesus took any substance from Mary is known as the “celestial flesh” heresy. It is a revival of the heretical Christology of Valentinus, a second-century Gnostic who taught that Christ passed through Mary “as water through a pipe”, taking nothing from her.
It denies not only Galatians 4:4, but Hebrews 2:14: “Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he also himself likewise took part of the same….” Jesus partook of the same flesh and blood that we share. This is Biblical truth.
If Jesus isn’t the Son of David, then the Bible lies when it calls Jesus Christ “the son of David, the son of Abraham” (Mt 1:1). Is the Bible wrong here?
Also Romans 1:3: “Concerning his Son Jesus Christ our Lord, which was made of the seed of David according to the flesh” (“made” here is again a form of the verb ginomai, as in Galatians 4:4). He was made of David’s seed, not some divine seed.
If Mary wasn’t the Mother of Jesus, then the Bible lies when it calls her the Mother of Jesus: “These all continued with one accord in prayer and supplication, with the women, and Mary the mother of Jesus…” (Acts 1:14) Is the Bible wrong here, too?
“And Joseph and his mother marvelled at those things which were spoken of him. And Simeon blessed them, and said unto Mary his mother…” (Luke 2:33-34)
“…the child Jesus tarried behind in Jerusalem; and Joseph and his mother knew not of it” (Luke 2:43)
“…and his mother said unto him, Son, why hast thou thus dealt with us…” (Luke 2:48)
“but his mother kept all these sayings in her heart” (Luke 2:51)
Nowhere in the Bible is Mary called his surrogate. Yet she is often called his mother.
Even one of the passages you quoted calls her His mother twice: “Now there stood by the cross of Jesus his mother… When Jesus saw his mother there” (John 19:25-26). Is the Bible in error?
Jesus wasn’t denying that Mary was His mother in Matt 12:47-50. He was saying that anyone who does the will of the Father could be members of His family. Mary herself did the will of the Father when she assented to become His mother (Luke 1:38), so how is He denying that she is His mother?
And no, He did not have flesh before the Incarnation. God is Spirit (John 4:24) and a spirit does not have flesh and bone (Luke 24:39). Jesus assumed human flesh in the Incarnation, when the Word was made flesh (John 1:14). He has no flesh in His Deity.
First, “the Word because Flesh”. It didn’t mix with Mary or had part of Mary’s flesh to be like greek demigods.
Secondly, Jesus Himself denied Mary to be her mother as in Matt 12:47-50 because, all who do the will of the Father are His brothers, mothers and sisters but not ‘fathers’.
Thirdly, when Jesus said I and the Father are one (speaking of Trinity), He wasn’t saying anything to indicate that He is only “part of the Father” and the remaining comes from Mary.
Finally, we don’t follow Paul but Christ. So, please don’t quote them to create strange doctrines to reject/contrary Christ’s doctrines/teachings.